Post test-LET Review English Majors

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Published on March 23, 2014

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University of St. La Salle Bacolod City LICENSURE EXAMINATION for TEACHERS REVIEW on THEORETICAL FOUNDATIONS of LANGUAGE POST-TEST QUESTIONNAIRE PART ONE ENGLISH for SPECIFIC PURPOSES RATIONALE: This part of the test will measure how much you could recall of the key notions, features, special terms, and key issues in this sphere of English language teaching (ELT), which includes Business English, Technical English, Scientific English, English for medical professionals, English for tourism, English for Art Purposes, etc. DIRECTIONS: Read the questions and consider the options carefully. Use the answer sheet provided. Shade the appropriate bracket neatly. If you want to change your answer, cross out the first one. Erasures are strongly discouraged. START  1. Which of the following statements is NOT true about slang expressions? a. Are expressions that are not considered standard in the speaker's language or dialect b. Are considered acceptable in certain social settings c. Are widely used in informal and formal speech and writing d. May be new words or old ones used with a new meaning e. Have a very short, momentary life 2. Which of the following words qualifies as slang? a. Spyware d. Goalie b. Scrub suit e. None of the Above c. Ammo 3. Which of the following linguists introduced the term “register” in 1956? a. Thomas Bertram Reid d. Robert Lado b. M.A.K. Halliday e. Benjamin Sapir c. Henry Widdowson 4. What term is used to refer to a variety of language used for a particular purpose or in a particular social setting? a. Register d. Idiolect b. Basilect e. None of the Above c. Dialect 5. The following words seem to belong to the same register, EXCEPT--- a. desist d. debit b. null e. litigation c. mitigate 6. Which of the following statements characterize ESP in the context of English language teaching? a. It is designed to meet specified needs of the learner. b. It is related in content to particular disciplines, occupations and activities. c. It is centred on the language appropriate to those activities in syntax, lexis, discourse, semantics, etc., and analysis of this discourse. d. It is in contrast with General English. e. All of the above NAME DATE SCORE /100

7. The following are characteristics of “casual register,” EXCEPT--- a. Common among friends in a social setting b. Wording is exactly the same every time it is spoken c. No background information provided d. Contains a lot of ellipsis e. Tends to be slangy 8. Which of the following is a jargon of academe? a. pedagogy d. deficit b. leveraging e. none of the above c. bureaucracy 9. Which is an example of a course for English for Occupational Purposes (EOP)? a. English for Medical Studies d. English for Technicians b. English for Research Writing e. English for Classroom Application c. English for Social Advocacy 10. Who defined ESP by identifying its absolute and variable characteristics? a. Tony Dudley-Evans d. Martin Joos b. Tom Hutchinson e. David Nunan c. Peter Strevens 11. The following writing outputs are products of English for Academic Purposes (EAP), EXCEPT--- a. business letters d. laboratory reports b. financial reports e. thesis abstracts c. poems 12. What refers to terminology especially defined in relationship to a specific activity, profession, group, or event? a. Subculture slang d. Mesolect b. Genre e. Jargon c. Style 13. Who identified the three types of ESP as a restricted language, as English for Academic and Occupational Purposes, and as English with specific topics? a. David Carter d. Marianne Celce-Murcia b. Ruqaiya Hasan e. Peter Trudgill c. Alan Waters 14. What is an “argot”? a. An inferior dialect resulting from corrupting a particular language b. A euphemistic expression used by a particular group of individuals c. An informal specialized vocabulary related to a hobby, job, sport, etc. d. An invented language resulting from geographical isolation e. None of the above 15. Which of the following texts are products of “academic writing”? a. Conference papers d. Opinion columns b. Blog articles for students e. All of the above c. Personal essays PART TWO STYLISTICS RATIONALE: This part of the test will measure your stored knowledge of the key concepts, general theoretical framework, the levels of style and the corresponding devices, and procedures applied to the analysis of style in literary texts.

DIRECTIONS: Read the questions and consider the options carefully. Use the answer sheet provided. Shade the appropriate bracket neatly. If you want to change your answer, cross out the first one. Erasures are strongly discouraged. START  STYLISTICS 1. What is a “motif” in literary writing? a. The main insight, central idea, or universal truth found in a literary work b. An image or idea repeated throughout a work or several works of literature c. The element of surprise in a work of fiction, such as twist ending d. The writing style adopted by the author which is revealed in his/her word choice e. None of the above 2. Which of the following statements define stylistics accurately? a. It deals with expressive means which secure the desirable effect of the utterance b. Is the study of literary discourse from a linguistic orientation c. Explicates the message to interpret and evaluate literary writings as works of art d. All of the Above e. None of the Above 3. Which of the following best illustrates “understatement”? a. “That’s wrong, Einstein.” (Addressing somebody who does not know the answer.) b. “I think our opinions differ slightly.” (“I don’t agree with you at all.”) c. “I’m so hungry I could eat a horse!” d. “That sounds really interesting.” (Said about a lame idea) e. None of the Above 4. In this excerpt from Emily Dickinson’s poem, I Heard a Fly Buzz When I Died, what stylistic device was employed by the poet as illustrated by the underlined phrase? “And breaths were gathering sure/ For that last onset, when the king/ Be witnessed in his power.” a. Paradox d. Antithesis b. Irony e. Oxymoron c. Parallelism 5. In stylistics parlance, what term refers to the appropriateness of a work to its subject, its genre, and its audience? a. Diction d. Point of View b. Decorum e. Style c. Tone 6. Which of the following terms refers to the emotional color of or the prevalent emotion in a poem or work of fiction? a. Local color d. Diction b. Theme e. Mood c. Imagery 7. Which of the following lines best exemplifies “paradox”? a. “The child is father of the man.” (Wordsworth) b. “O hateful love, o loving hate! I burn and freeze like ice!” (Shakespeare) c. “At the drunkard’s funeral, four of his friends carried the bier.” d. “Don’t we all love peace and hate war? / Shouldn’t we try to be friendlier towards each other?” e. None of the Above 8. In Hawthorne's The Scarlet Letter, Rev. Dimmesdale metaphorically fades away (dims) as the novel progresses, while Chillingworth has a cold (chilled) heart. What figurative language is used here? a. Symbol d. Pun b. Charactonym e. Metaphor c. Allusion

9. Which of the following expressions exemplify the stylistic device called “allusion”? a. Shakespeare is a literary titan. d. Philippines, O, Pearl of the Orient! b. Death, be not proud! e. All of the Above c. Not yet, Rizal, not yet. 10. What rhetorical device did Bacon use in the following excerpt from his essay, “Of Studies,” when he drew a comparison between reading and medicine? Nay, there is no obstacle or impediment in the wit, but may wrought out by fit studies; like as diseases of the body may have appropriate exercises: bowling is good for the stone and reins; shooting for the lungs and breast; gentle walking for the stomach; riding for the head; and the like. a. Anaphora d. Irony b. Analogy e. Understatement c. Metaphor 11. Which branch of stylistics studies functions of direct and figurative meanings, as well as the way contextual meanings of words are realized in the text? a. Grammatical Stylistics d. Individual Style Study b. Functional Stylistics e. Lexical Stylistics c. Phonostylistics 12. Which of the following passages best exemplifies “antithesis”? a. For everything there is a season, and a time for every matter under heaven: a time to be born, and a time to die; a time to plant, and a time to pluck up what is planted. (Ecc. 3:1) b. To err is human; to forgive, divine. (Alexander Pope) c. A man without ambition is dead. A man with ambition but no love is dead. A man with ambition and love for his blessings here on earth is ever so alive. (Pearl Bailey) d. The mistakes of the fool are known to the world, but not to himself. The mistakes of the wise man are known to himself, but not to the world. (Charles Caleb Colton) e. Tell me and I forget. Teach me and I may remember. Involve me and I will learn. (Benjamin Franklin) 13. The first line in the following excerpts from Shakespeare’s play “The Tempest” illustrates a clever combination of two poetic devices. What are these? Full fathom five thy father lies; Of his bones are coral made; Those are pearls that were his eyes: Nothing of him that doth fade, But doth suffer a sea change Into something rich and strange. Sea nymphs hourly ring his knell: Ding-dong. Hark! Now I hear them – Ding-dong bell. a. Personification and apostrophe d. Alliteration and assonance b. Oxymoron and metaphor e. Assonance and consonance c. Irony and apostrophe

14. What creative use of language is illustrated in this excerpt from Dylan Thomas’ poem, Do not go gentle into that good night: “Grave men, near death, who see with blinding sight” ? a. Assonance d. Apostrophe b. Metaphor e. Pun c. Symbolism 15. The last two lines: Sea nymphs hourly ring his knell:/Ding-dong. Hark! /Now I hear them – Ding-dong bell/ contain a “sound technique” commonly used by poets to add musicality to their work. What techniques are these? a. Consonance and rhythm d. Onomatopoeia and assonance b. Onomatopoeia and rhyme e. None of the above c. Assonance and rhyme 16. Which of the following expressions best exemplifies a stylistic device called “litotes”? a. It’s not unusual to find Richard everyday at the library. b. Defeating a chess grandmaster is no ordinary feat. c. They aren’t the happiest couple around d. Einstein was not a bad mathematician. e. All of the above 17. Frost is making a serious point about human nature in his poem, Fire and Ice, but his tone is completely at odds with his message. What type of irony is employed here? Some say the world will end in fire, Some say in ice. From what I’ve tasted of desire I hold with those who favour fire. But if I had to perish twice, I think I know enough of hate To say that for destruction ice Is also great And would suffice. a. Irony of Situation d. Irony of Fate b. Dramatic Irony e. Cosmic Irony c. Verbal Irony 18. Which of the following is NOT an example of “metonymy”? a. The controversial couple are living under the same roof. b. The White House declared full support for child-friendly campaigns. c. Empty pockets never held anyone back. Only empty heads and empty hearts can do that. (Norman Vincent Peale) d. This land belongs to the crown. e. The pen is mightier than the sword. (Edward Bulwer-Lytton)

19. To concretize the concept of hatred, Frost chose the word “ice.” What kind of figurative language is the word “ice” in this poem? a. Symbol d. Paradox b. Metonymy e. Motif c. Imagery 20. This excerpt from Ovid’s Daedalus and Icarus illustrates a structural device used by writers to prepare the reader for a future event. What device is this? And Icarus, his son, stood by and watched him, Not knowing he was dealing with his downfall, Stood by and watched, and raised his shiny face To let a feather, light as down, fall on it, Or stuck his thumb into the yellow wax, Fooling around, the way a boy will, always, Whenever a father tries to get some work done. a. Flashbacking d. Epiphany b. Foreshadowing e. Allusion c. Frame story 21. In this excerpt from the short story A Spring by the Seaside, author N.V.M. Gonzalez makes masterful use of which literary device? After Longos River, the trail to Mauhaw climbs the Hill of the White Cows and for ten kilometres or so wanders about the rolling cogon country before finally entering the woods. Only then may one get glimpses of the sea, heart-warming pictures framed in by palma-brava and dao trees. Mauhaw Bay itself comes after woods, the winding trail, after the resin-fragrant winds that strum the buri leaves as though these were guitars. a. Symbolisms d. Metaphors b. Local color e. None of the above c. Allusions 22. In Percy Bysshe Shelley’s Ozymandias, he startles us by depicting an ancient boast that survives on the vacant pedestal. What literary device was employed in this excerpt? And on the pedestal these words appear: “My name is Ozymandias, king of kings: Look on my works, ye Mighty, and despair!” Nothing beside remains. Round the decay Of that colossal wreck, boundless and bare The lone and level sands stretch far away. a. Oxymoron d. Irony b. Paradox e. Anticlimax c. Metaphor 23. What stylistic device is exemplified by the underlined words in Shelley’s sonnet? a. Symbol d. Metaphor b. Allusion e. None of the above c. Overstatement 24. What sound technique is used in this excerpt from A.E. Housman’s poem? Loveliest of trees, the cherry now Is hung with bloom along the bough a. Rhyme d. Alliteration b. Repetition e. Consonance c. Assonance

25. In I.R. Galperin’s five styles in present-day English, which of the following falls under what he called “Belles Lettres”? a. Oratory and speeches d. News and advertisements b. Emotive prose and the drama e. All of the above c. Essays and articles PART THREE THE STRUCTURE of ENGLISH RATIONALE: This part of the test will measure your knowledge and understanding of the structural and grammatical aspects of language, as well as of the tools and methods of modern linguistics used in describing how English sentences are constructed. DIRECTIONS: Read the questions and consider the options carefully. Use the answer sheet provided. Shade the appropriate bracket neatly. If you want to change your answer, cross out the first one. Erasures are strongly discouraged. START  1. In which of the following structures does the word “off ” function as an “adverbial particle”? a. You’re off the hook. d. Their on and off relationship b. Off with you! e. We put it off too long c. I’m not off yet. 2. The following words may belong to the same lexical category, EXCEPT --- a. give d. book b. place e. play c. fame 3. Which of the following statements about sentence structure is NOT correct? a. Two words (lexis) that belong to the same category (lexical category) can substitute each other in a sentence. b. Each word has a limitless range of possible functions. c. There are restrictions on how the words can combine to form grammatical phrases. d. Lexical categories can expand into bigger strings of words called ‘phrasal categories.’ e. The distribution of a word in a sentence structure determines its function. 4. Which of the following phrases would be generated by this Phrase Structure Rule: NP Art(Adj)N + PP Prep Det N? a. An old letter beneath your pillow b. The house at the end of the street c. My one chance at winning the lottery d. One day at a time e. That old powerful beast of burden 5. Which of the following word groups is a sentence fragment? a. They fought d. A family just moved in b. Quit it e. All of the Above c. The boy and the girl’s uncle 6. In which of the following sentences does the verb “be” (is) function as the intensive verb or copula? a. Ed is annoying. d. Ed is annoying me. b. Ed is fooling around. e. Ed is going out of control. c. Ed is giving me a hard time.

7. Which type of grammar deals with the rules determining the structure and interpretation of sentences that speakers accept as belonging to the language? a. Comparative Grammar d. Performance Grammar b. Theoretical Grammar e. Generative Grammar c. Universal Grammar 8. Which of the following are “optional constituents” of this sentence: “The grumpy history teacher surprised us with an unannounced quiz.” a. grumpy, history, teacher d. grumpy, history, unannounced b. grumpy, surprised, unannounced e. grumpy, surprised, quiz c. grumpy, teacher, quiz 9. Which of the following best describes a “phrase”? a. A sequence of words that does not express a complete thought b. A sequence of words that can function as a sentence constituent c. A sequence of words that contains only a subject and no predicate d. A sequence of words that contains only a predicate and no subject e. None of the above 10. Which of the following sentence structures contains a “ditransitive verb group”? a. Max had replied to my letter. b. Max has turned a subtle shade of red. c. Max hates huge spiders. d. Max found his own jokes extremely funny. e. Max is giving his boss a headache. 11. The following can function as “intensive verbs,” EXCEPT--- a. make d. turn b. seem e. remain c. become 12. What is the function of the underlined constituent in the following sentence: “ Phil dreads wild animals in the jungle” ? a. Obligatory Complement d. Optional Complement b. Optional Modifier e. Objective Predicative c. Indirect Object 13. Which of the following is a “complex” sentence? a. Don’t make any comment unless you are fully aware of the issue . b. I didn’t start this dispute and I don’t want to have anything to do with it. c. You can wallow in your miseries or you can start over and move on. d. Jen likes her new house, but she doesn’t like the front yard. e. My mind changed on my way to the party, so I headed home. 14. Which of the following sentence structures is “syntactically ambiguous”? a. The mayor invited all city hall employees to his birthday dinner. b. The columnist writes feature articles on antique writing desks. c. The man with a tall hat sits rather uncomfortably at the dinner table. d. The valet looks imposing in his purple velvet vest. e. None of the above

15. Which approach to grammar refers to the structure of a language as it is actually used by speakers and writers? a. Prescriptive Grammar d. Descriptive Grammar b. Pedagogical Grammar e. Reference Grammar c. Mental Grammar 16. Which of the following structures qualifies as a “determiner phrase”? a. An anecdote d. Your property b. Her predicament e. All of the above c. My pet 17. Syntax deals with the following concepts, EXCEPT--- a. rules of correct usage d. lexical categories b. smaller units called constituents e. distribution and function c. structural analysis 18. In Chomsky’s Transformational Grammar, to what does a sentence’s “deep structure” refer? a. The version of a sentence that we articulate and hear b. The outward form of a sentence c. The final stage in the syntactic representation of a sentence d. The abstract representation of a sentence e. None of the above 19. “Lexical ambiguity” is best exemplified by which of the following sentences? a. He’s a sore loser. d. She’s a liar. b. That’s a good pitch. e. The tree fell over. c. You bet it’s real! 20. The following statements about prepositions and prepositional phrases are true, EXCEPT--- a. Prepositions indicate the relationship of a noun phrase to the rest of the sentence. b. Prepositions are structurally and functionally identical to particles. c. Prepositions serve as heads of prepositional phrases. d. Prepositional phrases perform adjectival and adverbial functions. e. Prepositions must not be separated from their following noun phrases. PART FOUR INTRODUCTION TO LINGUISTICS RATIONALE: This part of the test will measure how much you could recall of the concepts, theories, and special terms in linguistics and its subfields. DIRECTIONS: Read the questions and consider the options carefully. Use the answer sheet provided. Shade the appropriate bracket neatly. If you want to change your answer, cross out the first one. Erasures are strongly discouraged. START  1. What is the study of larger linguistic units, such as conversational exchanges or written texts? a. Rhetoric d. Discourse Analysis b. Stylistics e. Pragmatics c. Genre Analysis 2. Which of the following words contains a derivational morpheme? a. Men’s apparel d. Words uttered b. Larger than life e. None of the Above c. Vast improvement 3. Which theory of language origin claims that a number of words in any language are onomatopoeic? a. Divine Source Theory d. Glossogenetics Theory b. Natural-sound Source Theory e. None of the Above c. Oral-gesture Source Theory

4. What do you call the smallest perceptible segments of speech sounds? a. Phones d. Morphemes b. Phonemes e. None of the Above c. Morphs 5. What are allophones? a. Realizations of a phoneme d. Versions of a sound type b. Variants of one phoneme e. None of the Above c. Abstract units or sound types 6. What field of linguistics deals speaker-intended meanings? a. Semantics d. Syntax b. Pragmatics e. None of the Above c. Morphophonemics 7. Which of the following is NOT a minimal pair? a. Bear – Bare d. Pace - Face b. Site – Side e. None of the Above c. Bet – Bat 8. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. The Speech Act Theory was proposed by John Austin and John Searle. b. Noam Chomsky introduced Functional Grammar and Generative Grammar. c. Hallidayan grammar is also called Systemic Functional Grammar. d. The term “communicative competence” was coined by Dell Hymes in 1966. e. None of the Above 9. What do you call the subsequent reference to an already introduced entity, used to maintain reference, as exemplified by the underlined word in these sentences: “I was waiting for the milkman, but he failed to show up this morning”? a. Referent d. Agent b. Deixis e. None of the Above c. Anaphora 10. Which of the following words is a result of coinage? a. Yogurt d. Infomercial b. Xerox e. None of the Above c. Smog 11. Which of the following is an accurate phonetic description of the phoneme [ g ]? a. Voiceless velar stop d. Voiceless alveolar stop b. Voiced alveolar stop e. None of the Above c. Voiced velar stop 12. In which of the following examples should the vowel “a” be treated as a bound morpheme? a. About d. AWOL b. A boy e. None of the Above c. Asexual 13. Which property of human language allows the users of language to talk about things and events not present in the immediate environment? a. Arbitrariness d. Discreteness b. Displacement e. None of the Above c. Productivity 14. Which of the following syllables have an “onset” and a “nucleus,” but no “coda”? a. bat d. wash b. for e. beg c. see

15. Which of the following is a non-gradable adjective? a. Consummate d. Full b. Subtle e. None of the Above c. Vivid 16. Words like “movie” (moving pictures), “Aussie” (Australian), and “hankie” (handkerchief) are produced from a type of backformation favoured in Australian and British English. What is the technical term for this word formation process” a. clipping d. calque b. hypocorism e. conversion c. derivation 17. Which of the following examples shows noun in its genitive form? a. Their mothers are here d. My mother’s tired b. Your mother’s the best e. None of the Above c. My mother’s best friend 18. What is the semantic role of the underlined word in this sentence: “Mary borrowed a magazine from George and hit the bug with it.” a. Theme d. Source b. Agent e. Goal c. Instrument 19. Which of the following is phonetically described as “mid front tense unrounded” vowel? a. [ i ] d. [ e ] b. [ u ] e. None of the Above c. * α + 20. Which of the following are non-gradable antonyms? a. Tight – Loose d. True - False b. Fast – Slow e. Wide - Narrow c. Young – Old PART FIVE REMEDIAL INSTRUCTION IN ENGLISH RATIONALE: This part of the test will measure how much you could recall concepts on English language teaching (ELT) strategies and methods in the context of English language learners (ELL) who find themselves struggling in matters of communicative competence in any or all the domains in communication. DIRECTIONS: Read the questions and consider the options carefully. Use the answer sheet provided. Shade the appropriate bracket neatly. If you want to change your answer, cross out the first one. Erasures are strongly discouraged. START  1. What term is used to refer to the process of recognizing words by putting together letters and sounds? a. Encoding d. Phrase reading b. Decoding e. None of the above c. Skimming 2. Which learning theory views organized knowledge as an elaborate network of abstract mental structures which represent one's understanding of the world? a. Transformative Learning Theory d. Elaboration Theory b. Constructivist Theory e. Attribution Theory c. Schema Theory

3. Who introduced the concepts of Basic Interpersonal Communicative Skills (BICS) and Cognitive Academic Language Proficiency (CALP) in second language development in 1979? a. Jim Cummins d. Dell Hymes b. Jack Richards e. M.A.K. Halliday c. Grant Wiggins 4. The following are true about Communicative Language Teaching, EXCEPT--- a. Language is seen as a social tool that speakers use to make meaning. b. Diversity is recognized and accepted as part of language development. c. A fixed set of techniques and methodology is prescribed. d. More than one variety of a language is recognized as a viable model for learning and teaching. e. It is essential that learners be engaged in doing things with language. 5. What term is used to refer to the provision of sufficient support to promote learning when concepts and skills are being first introduced to students with the intention of helping the student achieve his/her learning goals? a. Intervention d. Modelling b. Scaffolding e. Coaching c. Tutorial 6. Which approach to language teaching is based on the behaviorist belief that language learning is the acquisition of a set of correct language habits and whose goal is to use the target language communicatively, overlearn it, so as to be able to use it automatically? a. Grammar-Translation Method d. Suggestopedia b. Direct Method e. Audio-Lingual Method c. Communicative Approach 7. Which of the following is NOT accurate about Content-Based Instruction (CBI)? a. CBI is designed to provide second-language learners instruction content and language. b. CBI uses content as a vehicle for second or foreign language teaching and learning. c. The goal of CBI is to prepare students to acquire the language while using the context of a prescribed subject matter. d. Rather than learning a language out of context, it is learned within the context of a specific academic subject. e. The CBI approach is comparable to English for Specific Purposes (ESP), which usually is for vocational or occupational needs or English for Academic Purposes (EAP). 8. The following are characteristics of an Emergent Reader, EXCEPT--- a. Can differentiate between fact and fiction b. Can make predictions and tell why c. Can use pictures for clues d. Can retell a simple story read to them e. Can blend phonemes or letter sounds

9. Self-monitoring and paying attention belong to which category of learning strategies identified by Oxford in 1989? a. Metacognitive d. Compensation b. Affective e. Social c. Cognitive 10. Which of the following is a symptom of retention difficulty? a. Confusion about the meaning of words and sentences b. Difficulty connecting what is read to prior knowledge c. Difficulty distinguishing significant information from minor details d. Lack of concentration while reading e. Inability to connect ideas in a passage 11. The following statements about dyslexia are accurate, EXCEPT--- a. Manifests itself as a difficulty with fluent reading b. Not related to I.Q., since reading and cognition develop independently c. Has been proposed to have three cognitive subtypes: auditory, visual and attentional d. Confusion between letters and the sounds they represent e. Mainly characterized by letter or word reversal 12. Which of the following refers to the reader’s overall background experiences and prior knowledge? a. Schemata d. Decoding skill b. Context e. Retention skill c. Comprehension 13. Which of the following characterizes a “strategic reader”? a. Refers to the dictionary when an unfamiliar word is encountered in the text b. Chooses reading materials that are easier to read c. Previews a selection and rereads difficult passages d. Refrains from taking notes while reading e. None of the above 14. Which approach to reading involves the breaking down of words into its parts in order to study them? a. Syllabic Approach d. Analytic Approach b. Synthetic Approach e. Phonic Approach c. Eclectic Approach 15. Which of the following characterize the “interpretive level” of comprehension? a. Drawing inferences b. Detecting opinions and biases c. Organizing information d. Selecting and rejecting information e. Analyzing strengths and weaknesses of arguments 16. Which of the following explain why learning disabled students struggle with comprehension? a. Ineffective search behaviours e. All of the above b. Impaired working memory c. Inadequate decoding skills d. Inability to connect causal relationships

17. Which of the following is also known as “Meaning-Based Approach”? a. Sight Word Approach d. Global Approach b. Syllabic Approach e. None of the above c. Analytic Approach 18. Which of the following best characterizes a Fluent Reader? a. Begins to self-correct b. Identifies main characters c. Begins to feel confident when reading orally d. Evaluates characters’ actions or behaviors e. Identifies high-frequency words 19. Which of the following statements accurately describes the Bottom-Up Model of Reading? a. It is a deductive model of reading because it involves whole-to-part processing. b. Suggests that the reader constructs meaning from all available sources c. The primary focus of instruction should be the reading of whole selections d. Reading is driven by the text, not the reader. e. The emphasis is on comprehension, not decoding. 20. What do you call those structured outlines that can effectively introduce a new material to students by showing key facts and vocabulary necessary for understanding concepts to be covered? a. diagrams d. chapter headings b. lecture notes e. mind maps c. glossary END OF POST-TEST University of St. La Salle Bacolod City LICENSURE EXAMINATION for TEACHERS REVIEW on THEORETICAL FOUNDATIONS of LANGUAGE POST-TEST ANSWER SHEET PART ONE ENGLISH FOR SPECIFIC PURPOSES A B C D E 1. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 2. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 3. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 4. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 5. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 6. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 7. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 8. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 9. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 10. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 11. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 12. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 13. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 14. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 15. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] NAME DATE SCORE /100

PART TWO STYLISTICS A B C D E 1. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 2. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 3. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 4. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 5. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 6. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 7. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 8. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 9. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 10. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 11. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 12. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 13. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 14. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 15. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 16. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 17. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 18. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 19. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 20. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 21. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 22. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 23. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 24. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 25. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] PART THREE THE STRUCTURE OF ENGLISH A B C D E 1. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 2. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 3. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 4. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 5. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 6. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 7. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 8. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 9. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 10. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 11. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 12. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 13. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 14. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 15. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 16. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 17. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 18. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 19. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 20. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] PART FOUR INTRODUCTION TO LINGUISTICS A B C D E

1. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 2. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 3. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 4. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 5. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 6. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 7. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 8. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 9. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 10. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 11. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 12. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 13. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 14. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 15. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 16. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 17. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 18. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 19. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 20. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] PART FIVE REMEDIAL INSTRUCTION IN ENGLISH A B C D E 1. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 2. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 3. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 4. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 5. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 6. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 7. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 8. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 9. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 10. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 11. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 12. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 13. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 14. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 15. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 16. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 17. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 18. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 19. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] 20. [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] END OF POST-TEST

*SUMMARY OF RESULTS: PRE-TEST SCORE _____/100 POST-TEST SCORE _____/100

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